So, I was watched part of the Democrat debate at UNLV today. Quite a few things annoyed me (although I couldn’t yell at the TV as much as I wanted to as Mikey had fallen asleep on the couch downstairs. The thing that bothered me the most was when they asked each Democrat Presidential candidate if they would ask a potential nominee for the US Supreme Court if they accepted Roe V. Wade as “settled law”. Every candidate, in some form or another agreed with that notion. I do not agree with Roe V. Wade, however, the thing that bothered me is the “settled law”. Did I miss something in my Civics classes? When did the Courts get the power to pass laws? How can a Court decision be “settled law”? Where in the Constitution (including its Amendments) was the Judaical branch given that power? As I read it, only the Legislative branch has the power to make law.
